Nếu \(\int_0^2 {f\left( x \right){\rm{d}}x} = 2;\,\int_0^2 {g\left( x \right){\rm{d}}x} = 1\) thì \(\int_0^2 {\left[ {3f\left( x \right) – g\left( x \right)} \right]{\rm{d}}x} \) b...

Câu hỏi :

Nếu \(\int_0^2 {f\left( x \right){\rm{d}}x} = 2;\,\int_0^2 {g\left( x \right){\rm{d}}x} = 1\) thì \(\int_0^2 {\left[ {3f\left( x \right) – g\left( x \right)} \right]{\rm{d}}x} \) bằng